Erratum to the post, “Why the difference between the Old Testament canon in different Christian traditions?”

Caravaggio, ‘Judith beheading Holofernes’ (circa 1598—1599). Courtesy of Wikimedia Commons.
Caravaggio, ‘Judith beheading Holofernes’ (circa 1598—1599). Courtesy of Wikimedia Commons.

I have discovered and corrected an erratum on my previous post, “Why the difference between the Old Testament canon in different Christian traditions?” (3 Sep 2018)

The article in question can be found here.

The paragraph in question read:

It would appear that Orthodox Judaism accepted as divinely inspired Scripture only books which had been written in Hebrew or Aramaic (a few parts of our Old Testament were written in Aramaic), or which were deemed to be of late origin (i.e., later than the Persian period).

This is evidently an error due to rephrasing, and has now been corrected in situ to read:

It would appear that Orthodox Judaism accepted as divinely inspired Scripture only books which had been written in Hebrew or Aramaic (a few parts of our Old Testament were written in Aramaic), and were not deemed to be of late origin (i.e., later than the Persian period).

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